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Thank you for the APR explanation and good examples, but I'm still confused. My scenario was quite simple. No VLAN was configured, and everything was in VLAN 1. No NIC teaming, no VM, etc. The single physical server was connected to port 3, but I didn't see its MAC on port 3; it's on trunk port 7. It wouldn't have communicated in the network if I didn't manually bind its MAC to port 3.

Try "split tunneling". You can google it for more information.

Hi,

I have a server connected to port 3 of switch 192.168.0.22, but I see its MAC address on port 7. I have to manually bind its MAC to port 3 to make it communicate with the gateway (192.168.0.1). The MAC also flaps on the trunk ports (19,20,21,22,23) of switch 192.168.0.17. When I tracked the MAC down to the next level of switches, say 192.168.0.11, I just saw the MAC was on port 24 of the switch. The MAC always seems on the trunk ports. It could be a loop, but why other servers on switch 192.168.0.22 are all good? If a loop persists, where is the redundant connection? MAC conflict is rare, but could it happen in my network?

Please refer to the attachment for the topology. Any thoughts are appreciated!